Saturday, March 30, 2013

BIOLOGY MODEL QUESTIONS FOR NEET-CELL AND ANIMAL KINGDOM




ANIMAL KINGDOM
1.Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A.Viviparity is the reproductive pattern shown by most mammals
B.Viviparity occurs primarily in salamanders and caecilians.
C.In viviparity, a shell does not form around the egg.
D.Viviparity is not found in species of lizards and snakes.
ANS D
Question 2 
Which one of the following statements is stated incorrectly regarding cartilaginous fishes?
ACartilaginous fishes have sense organs.
BMost cartilaginous fishes have color vision.
CTeeth-like placoid scales are found on the skin of cartilaginous fishes.
D In cartilaginous fishes, gas exchange occurs in the gills.
ANS B
Question 3 
Which statement is correct regarding reptiles, birds, and mammals?
AEvolved from a common ancestor
BEmbryos are surrounded by a fluid-filled sac called amnion
COuter covering is largely watertight.
DAll of the above
ANS D
Question 4 
Which one of the following characteristics is NOT a shared by birds and mammals?
A backbone and internal skeleton
BBreathing using lungs
CViviparity
DWarm blooded nature
ANS C
Question 5 
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
ARadial symmetry is displayed by sea anemone and aquatic animal.
BFasciola hepatica is also known as the sheep liver fluke.
CTriploblastic animals are usually bilaterally symmetrical
DMesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia
ANS D
Question 6 
Which one of the followings belongs to platyhelminthes?
A.Plasmodium
B.Trypanosoma
C.Schistosoma
DWuchereria
ANS C
Question 7 
Radial symmetry is generally exhibited by which animals?
Which are attached with substratum
Which are aquatic
Which have ciliary feeding
Which have one opening of alimentary canal
Question 8 
Tachyglossus is a connecting link between
Reptiles and Birds
Amphibians and Reptiles
Birds and Mammals
Reptiles and Mammals
Question 9 
The scientific name of Asian tiger mosquito
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
Aedes taeniorhynchus
Aedes albolineatus
Question 10 
Water-Vascular’ system is found in
Sea-anemone
Sea-pen
Sea-cucumber
Sea-horse
Question 11 
Cell tissue grade of organization occurs in
Platyhelminthes
Sponges
Protozoa
Coelenterata
Question 12 
Swarming generally occurs in
Pyrilla
Mosquito
House fly
Locust
Question 13 
Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as
Biothermic
Poikilothermic
Oligothermic
Homeothermic
Question 14 
Which one of the followings in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?
Eggs with a calcareous shell
Scales on their hind limbs
Four-chambered heart
Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
Question 15 
______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.
Threadworms
Sponges
Tapeworms
Liver fluke



CELL
Question 1
Cell division can not be stopped in which phase of the cell cycle?
A
G1-phase
B
G2-phase
C
S-phase
D
Prophase
Question 2
What type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
A
Autotetraploid
B
Haploid
C
Triploid
D
Allotetraploid
Question 3
The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during
A
Leptotene
B
Diakinesis
C
Diplotene
D
Pachytene
Question 4
Synapsis occurs between
A
mRNA and ribosomes
B
A male and a female gamete
C
Two homologous chromosomes
D
Spindle fibres and centromere
Question 5
If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into:
A
Prophase
B
Anaphase
C
Telophase
D
Metaphase
Question 6
Cells in G0 phase of cell cycle
A
Exit cell cycle
B
Enter cell cycle
C
Suspend cell cycle
D
Terminate cell cycle
Question 7
In the somatic cell cycle:
A
In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell
B
A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
C
DNA replication takes place in S-phase
D
G2 phase follows mitotic phase
Question 8
Which of the following events takes place during Diplotene stage of prophase I of meiosis?
A
Compaction of chromosomes
B
Formation of synaptonemal complexes
C
Formation of recombinational nodules
D
Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Question 9
The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
A
splitting of the centromeres
B
splitting of the chromatids
C
replication of the genetic material
D
condensation of the chromatin
Question 10
Which of the following is unique to mitosis and not a part of meiosis?
A
Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents
B
Chromatids are separated during anaphase
C
Homologous chromosomes behave independently
D
Homologous chromosomes crossover
Question 11
Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence:

I. Terminalization

II. Crossing over

III. Synapsis

IV. Disjunction of genomes

The correct sequences :

A
II, I, IV, III
B
III, II, I, IV
C
IV, III, II, I
D
I, IV, III, II
Question 12
Assertion: Phase of cell division is also known as formative phase.

Reason: In formative phase new cells are produced from pre-existing cells through meiosis division. 

A
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
B
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.
C
Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D
Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 13
From the following, identify the two correct statements with reference to meiosis

I. Bead like structure are absent on chromosomes.

II. Displacement of chiasmata occurs in diakinesis.

III. Separation of two basic sets of chromosomes.

IV. No division of centromere.

The correct statements are:

A
III, IV
B
II, IV
C
II, III
D
I, III
Question 14
Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this stage? 
A
Prophase I during meiosis
B
Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
C
Prophase of Mitosis
D
Prophase II during meiosis
Question 15
Study the following lists and select the correct match from the option given below.
List-I List-II
(A) Initiation of spindle fibres (I) Anaphase - I
(B) Synthesis of RNA and Protein (II) Zygotene
(C) Action of endonuclease (III) G1 phase
(D) Movement of chromatids towards opposite poles (IV) Pachytene
  (V) Anaphase - II
A
A - I, B - III, C - V, D - IV
B
A - III, B - II, C - I, D - V
C
A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - V
D
A - V, B - III, C - I, D - II



Posted by at 3 comments:
Labels:

CHEMISTRY FOR NEET



1.+I effect is shown by
(A) -N02
(B) -Cl
(C) -Br
(D) -CH3
Answer: (D)
2.
0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is ______.
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
3.
0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container. After 3 hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will be
(A) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4
(B) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2
(C) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4
(D) pSO2 > pCH4, > pH2
Answer: (D)
4.
10 cm3 of 0.1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution whose normality is
(A) 1.5 N
(B) 0.15 N
(C) 0.066 N
(D) 0.66 N
Answer: (C)
5.
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
(A) between 6 and 7
(B) between 10 and 11
(C) between 7 and 8
(D) between 5 and 6
Answer: (C)
6.
2 gm of a radioactive sample having half life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The amount of the sample left behind on 1st March. 2009 (including both the days)
(A) 1 gm
(B) 0.5 gm
(C) 0 gm
(D) 0.125 gm
Answer: (D)
7.
2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is 6.4 at 300 K. If 0.25 mole each of H2 and
I2 are added to the system, the equilibrium constant will be
(A) 3.2
(B) 1.6
(C) 6.4
(D) 0.8
Answer: (C)
8.
2SO2(g) + O2(g)   is an example for
(A) irreversible reaction
(B) heterogenous catalysis
(C) homogenous catalysis
(D) neutralisation reaction
Answer: (B)
9.
30 cc of  HCl, 20 cc of  5 HNO3 and 40 cc of  NaOH solutions are mixed and the volume was made up to 1 dm3. The pH of the resulting solution is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 2
Answer: (D)
10.
5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to react. At equilibrium, it was found that 60% of SO2 is used up. lf the partial pressure of the equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere. the partial pressure of O2 is
(A) 0.21 atm
(B) 0.41 atm
(C) 0.82 atm
(D) 0.52 atm
Answer: (B)
11.
Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene? 
(A) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product 
(B) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds 
(C) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value 
(D) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°
Answer: (B)
12.
Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(A) N2
(B) NO
(C) CO
(D) O3
Answer: (B)
13.
Which one of the following is a covalent crystal? 
(A) Ice
(B) Rock salt
(C) Dry ice
(D) Quartz
Answer: (D)
14.
Which one of the following DOES NOT involve coagulation? 
(A) Formation of delta region 
(B) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride 
(C) Peptization 
(D) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum
Answer: (C)
15.
Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid?
(A) Uracil
(B) Guanidine
(C) Phosphoric acid
(D) Ribose sugar
Answer: (B)

 1.50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCI is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is ______.
(A) 10 cm3
(B) 12 cm3
(C) 10.5 cm3
(D) 25 cm3
Answer: (A)
2.80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in
(A) 80 g of hydrogen
(B) 1 g of hydrogen
(C) 10 g of hydrogen
(D) 5 g of hydrogen
Answer: (D)
3.
9.65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is ______.
(A) 1 ´ 10-4
(B) 5 ´ 10-4
(C) 1 ´ 10-5
(D) 5 ´ 10-5
Answer: (D)
4.
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
(A) 6% solution of Glucose
(B) 25% solution of Glucose
(C) 1 M solution of Glucose
(D) 0.05 M solution of Glucose
Answer: (C)
5.
A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is
(A) I92
(B) 188
(C) 182
(D) 168
Answer: (B)
6.
A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms-1. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with it would be
(Note : h = 6.63 ´ 10-34Js)
(A) 6.63 ´ 10-37m
(B) 6.63 ´ 10-31m
(C) 6.63 ´ 10-34m
(D) 6.63 ´ 10-35m
Answer: (B)
7.
A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms-1. Its de Broglie wavelength is 6.62 ´ 10-35m. Hence x is (h = 6.62 ´ 10-34Js)
(A) 0.15 kg
(B) 0.2 kg
(C) 0.1 kg
(D) 0.25 kg
Answer: (C)
8.
A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic acid. To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolved. The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to ______.
(A) pKa
(B) pKa - Log2
(C) pKa + L0g2
(D) pKa + 2
Answer: (C)
9
A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of  is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10–5, what is the pH of this solution?
(A) 8.73
(B) 9.08
(C) 9.43
(D) 11.72
Answer: (C)
10.
A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is
(A) K4 [Fe (CN)6]
(B) K3 [Fe (CN)6]
(C) [Ni (CO)4]
(D) [Pl (NH3 )4]Cl2
Answer: (C)
11.
Which of the following is used to prepare Cl2 gas at room temperature from concentrated HCI?
(A) MnO2
(B) H2S
(C) KMnO4
(D) Cr2O3
Answer: (C)
12.
Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
(A) Carnallite
(B) Dolomite
(C) Calamine
(D) Sea water
Answer: (C)
13.
Which of the following has the highest bond order?
(A) N2
(B) O2
(C) He2
(D) H2
Answer: (A)
14.
Which of the following gives an aldehyde on dry distillation? 
(A) Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate
(B) Calcium formate + calcium acetate 
(C) Calcium benzoate
(D) Calcium acetate
Answer: (B)
15.
Which of the following does not give benzoic acid on hydrolysis?
(A) phenyl cyanide
(B) benzoyl chloride
(C) benzyl chloride
(D) methyl benzoate
Answer: (C)
1.
A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the comers of the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest formula of the compound is
(A) AB
(B) A6B
(C) A8B4
(D) AB6
Answer: (A)
2.
A compound of 'A' and 'B' crystallises in a cubic lattice in which the 'A' atoms occupy the lattice points at the comers of the cube. The 'B' atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
(A) AB
(B) AB3
(C) AB2
(D) A3B
Answer: (B)
3.
A covalent molecule AB3 has pyramidal structure. The number of lone pair and bond pair electrons in the molecule are respectively
(A) 3 and 1
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 2
(D) 0 and 4
Answer: (B)
4.
A diabetic person carries a pocket of Glucose with him always, because
(A) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level.
(B) Glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously.
(C) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly.
(D) Glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly.
Answer: (B)
5.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is ______.
(A) 2, 2 - dibromobutane
(B) 1, 1 - dibromopropane
(C) 1, 4 - dibromobutane
(D) 1, 2 - dibromoethane
Answer: (C)
6.
A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules
(A) attract one another
(B) show the Tyndall effect
(C) have kinetic energy
(D) are bound by covalent bonds
Answer: (A)
7.
A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is
(A) 1 atm
(B) 0.5 atm
(C) 0.8 atm
(D) 0.9 atm
Answer: (B)
8.
A ligand can also be regarded as
(A) Lewis acid
(B) Bronsted base
(C) Lewis base
(D) Bronsted acid
Answer: (C)
9.
A metal present in insulin is
(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) zinc
(D) aluminium
Answer: (C)
10.
A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the Ca+2 ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is ______.
(A) 30.6
(B) 75
(C) 69.4
(D) 25
Answer: (B)
11.
Which of the following compound would not evolve CO2 when treated with NaHCO3 solution?
(A) salicylic acid
(B) phenol
(C) benzoic acid
(D) 4-nitro benzoic acid
Answer: (B)
12.
Which is not the correct statement about RNA and DNA?
(A) DNA is active in virus where RNA never appears in virus
(B) DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually single stranded
(C) DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and RNA contains ribose
(D) RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found in DNA) as a base
Answer: (A)
13.
Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2 group?
(A) cyclopropane
(B) cyclobutanc
(C) cyclopontane
(D) cyclohexane
Answer: (D)
14.
When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is dry distilled, the resulting compound is
(A) acetophenone
(B) benzaldehyde
(C) benzophenone
(D) acetaldehyde
Answer: (A)
15.
What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis?
(A) Starch is hemiacetal
(B) Starch is acetal
(C) Starch is polymer
(D) Starch contains only few molecules of glucose
Answer: (B)
1.
Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using ______.
(A) sodium hydroxide solution
(B) Fehling's solution
(C) Tollens' reagent
(D) 2, 4-DNPH
Answer: (C)
2.
Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product
(A) C6H5Cl
(B) C6Cl6
(C) C6H6Cl6
(D) CCl4
Answer: (C)
3.
By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
(A) 1.4
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.8
(D) 4.0
Answer: (A)
4.
Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because ______.
(A) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron.
(B) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable than ferric oxide.
(C) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon.
(D) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric oxide.
Answer: (A)
5.
Carbon forms two oxides which have different compositions. The equivalent mass of which remains constant?
(A) carbon
(B) oxygen
(C) neither carbon nor oxygen
(D) both carbon and oxygen
Answer: (B)
6.
Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a
(A) secondary alcohol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) ester
Answer: (B)
7.
CH3CH2Br   A  B  C  C  D; "D" is _____.
(A) CH3CONH2
(B) CH3Br
(C) CHBr3
(D) CH3NH2
Answer: (D)
8.
CH3COOH
ln the above reaction Z is
(A) Ketol
(B) Acetal
(C) Butanol
(D) Aldol
Answer: (D)
9.
Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This can be explained using ______.
(A) - I effect
(B) - M effect
(C) +I effect
(D) + M effect
Answer: (A)
10.
Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
(A) H2 and Pt as catalyst
(B) Glycol with KOH
(C) Zn-Hg with HCl
(D) LiAlH4
Answer: (C)
11.
0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is ______.
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
12.
2 gm of metal carbonate is neutralized completely by 100 ml of 0.1 (N) HCI. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
Answer: (D)
13.
25 g of each of the following gasses are taken at 27oC and 600 mm pressure. Which of these will have the least volume? 
(A) HCl
(B) HBr
(C) HI
(D) HF
Answer: (C)
14.
4 moles each of SO2 and O2 gases are allowed to react to form SO3 in a closed vessel. At equilibrium 25% of O2 is used up. The total number of moles of all the gases present at equilibrium is
(A) 6.5
(B) 7.0
(C) 8.0
(D) 2.0
Answer: (B)
15.
A distinctive and characteristic functional group of fats is
(A) a peptide group
(B) an ester group
(C) an alcoholic group
(D) a ketonic group
Answer: (B)
1. Which of the following compounds would have the highest boiling point?
(a)CH3CH2CH2CH3
(b)CH3NH2
(c)CH3OH
(d)CH2F2
2. Which of the following alkanes would have the highest boiling point?
3. How are the following compounds related?
(a)isoelectronic species
(b)isotopes
(c)isomers
(d)These compounds are not related at all...they are totally different.
4. What is the total number of sigma bonds found in the following compound?
(a)8
(b)10
(c)11
(d)15
5. What is the total number of pi bonds found in the following compound?
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

1. What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
(a)4-vinyl-2-pentyne
(b)4-methylhex-2-yn-5-ene
(c)3-methylhex-4-yn-1-ene
(d)3-methylhex-1-en-4-yne
2. What is the major product expected from the following reaction?
3. What is the major product expected from the following reaction?
4. What is the major product expected from the following reaction?
5. What is the major product expected from the following reaction?






Posted by at 2 comments:
Subscribe to: Posts (Atom)